I was thinking about the verse of the poem:
"Nor poor, so that my children suffer after her".
I was wondering why the singular word "walady" is used. I thought this means "my son".
How come "awlaady" is not used?

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Leila,
I’m surprised you were able to spot that, well done. Walad is accepted to mean son and walady means my son in the simple language that people use in their daily life, however, Walad comes from the root walada which means (birth), therefore, it is known that the wider meaning of Walad is all kids that the person has (boys and girls), also there is a say (kollo mawlooden walad) means Everyone born is Walad, so it is the kind of children in general. Therefore when the word walad comes without specifying boy or girl – which is the case of what the philosopher said- then it gives the wider meaning which is children.
By the way Leila, the philosopher words are not poem, Arabic poetry is much stronger than this
Salaam
Ehab

Jazakallahu khairan. Nice, clear explanation!